Basically looking for data similar to that used in this study:
https://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/volumes/70/wr/pdfs/mm7037e1-H.pdf
https://assets.publishing.service.gov.uk/government/uploads/...
I don't understand how there are 1613 vaccinated deaths versus 722 unvaccinated deaths. This is a period covering Feb through Sep, so it went from the low vaccination levels at the start of the year to high levels now.
If you look at the CDC numbers in their PDF you would believe Biden's claim "this is a pandemic of the unvaccinated." 91% of the deaths from Apr4–Jul17 are from the unvaccinated. The number of overall cases among vaccinated are a small fraction of the total, where the UK numbers that's not nearly the case.
Both countries use the same Pfizer vaccine. Can someone explain the discrepancy?
https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/covid-19-vaccine-...
Latest report: https://assets.publishing.service.gov.uk/government/uploads/...
This makes it harder to dive into vaccine efficacy and safety relative to unvaccinated.
It would be great for anybody seriously trying to compile this data to distinguish between vaccinated, unvaccinated, and not fully vaccinated for both 1 and 2 shot vaccines.